Tuesday, October 31, 2017

TOPIC-3 :: Setting Up and Managing Users

201)       How many profiles can load in a single list view with Enhanced Profile Management

enabled?
  • A. 300
  • B. 500
  • C. 200
  • D. 1.000
202)       Which Salesforce editions provide option for customizing profiles?
  • A. All Editions
  • B. Unlimited, Developer and Enterprise Editions
  • C. Professional, Unlimited, and Developer Editions
  • D. Enterprise, Unlimited, and Developer Editions
  • E. All except Group Edition
  • F. All except Professional Edition
Available in: Salesforce Classic and Lightning Experience Available in: Professional, Enterprise, Performance, Unlimited, Developer, and Database.com Editions Custom Profiles available in: Professional, Enterprise, Performance, Unlimited, and Developer Editions Answer should be E
203)       What is the click path to enable Enhance Profile Management?
  • A. Setup | Customize | User Interface
  • B. Setup | Manage Users | Profiles
  • C. Setup | Profiles | Customize
204)       Clients do not have to enable Customizable forecasting before they can ask Salesforce to activate Territory Management.
  • A. True
  • B. False
205)       Printable View does not Save all the report formatting.
  • A. True
  • B. False
206)       Record locking prevents users from editing a record only if they have certain field-level security or sharing settings.
  • A. True
  • B. False
Record Locking is a process of preventing users from editing a record regardless of field level security / sharing settings
207)       The account owner, opportunity owners, and case owners may or may not be the same user.
  • A. True
  • B. False
208)       What is not found on a Company Profile?
  • A. Language, Locale, and Time Zone
  • B. Profiles
  • C. Licenses
  • D. Storage and Used Space
  • E. Manage Currencies
  • F. Fiscal Years
209)       What type of information can NOT be shown with an S-Control Dashboard component?
  • A. Combination of two other Dashboard components
  • B. External feed of data
  • C. Data Warehouse information
  • D. Flash representations of data
210)       Organization-Wide Default Sharing Rule for Calendar Access Default is as Follows:
  • A. Hide Details
  • B. Hide Details and Add Events
  • C. Show Details
  • D. Show Details and Add Events
211)       Multiple record types may be created for every tab, with the exception of
  • A. Home
  • B. Accounts
  • C. Forecasting
  • D. Opportunity
  • E. Reports
212)       How does Locale settings affect your exported CSV file?
  • A. It doesn't affect anything.
  • B. It determines the delimiter.
  • C. It determines the encoding.
  • D. It determines the encryption.
213)       Spring \'11 includes a managed version of Chatter Desktop for enterprise deployments, and administration controls for controlling access to Chatter Desktop in your organization.
  • A. True
  • B. False
214)       You can create the following Email Template Formats: Choose 4
  • A. Text
  • B. Visual Force
  • C. HTML with Letterhead
  • D. XML Templates
  • E. Custom HTML
215)       Is identity confirmation necessary if a user's IP address is known and browser cookie
exists?
  • A. True
  • B. False
216)       Reports and views are not renamed based on the new label value
  • A. True
  • B. False
217)       Which of the following are standard Salesforce applications?
  • A. Ideas
  • B. Campaigns
  • C. Administration
  • D. Call Center
  • E. Sales Center
Call Center is now called Service App. Ideas is an object not an application.
218)       When you delete a Contact, it's associated Campaign Member record is deleted as well.
  • A. True
  • B. False
219)       The automated case user will be listed on the case history for all actions that are system defined, including:
  • A. When a case is automatically assigned using assignment rules
  • B. When a case is escalated
  • C. When a case is created online via Web-to-Case
  • D. When a Workflow is Triggered
220)       Following are the Custom Business Objects EXCEPT:
  • A. Use Force.com builder to build your own objects
  • B. Standard Salesforce.com Objects
  • C. Capture key, related information that applies to your business
  • D. Correlate to tables in the database
  • E. All of the above
221)       A Profile is a collection of settings and permissions that determine what the user can do with records they have access to and how they view those records.
  • A. True
  • B. False
222)       A Workflow Approval process may be used for all of the following objects EXCEPT:
  • A. Opportunity
  • B. Users
  • C. Assets
  • D. Contracts
223)       Maximum number of values allowed in a controlling field is:
  • A. 500
  • B. 100
  • C. 300
  • D. 200
The default is 300, the maximum is 500 https://help.salesforce.com/articleView?id=000221068&type=1
224)       Time-dependent workflow will not work with which type of workflow evaluation criteria?
  • A. Only when a Record is created
  • B. Every time a Record is created or edited
  • C. Every kind of workflow evaluation criteria
  • D. When a Record is edited and it didnt previously meet the rule criteria
225) When are data Validation Rules enforced?
  • A. Upon opening the record
  • B. Upon closing the record
  • C. Upon editing a field
  • D. Upon saving a record
226) Which of the following relationships are correct?
  • A. Lead, Contacts, and Opportunities can be associated to only one Campaign
  • B. Leads and Contacts can be associated to several Campaigns, but an Opportunity can have only one Campaign
  • C. Leads and Opportunities can be associated to several campaigns, but Contacts can only have one Campaign
227)IF(ISPICKVAL(picklist_field)) has the same output as:
  • A. VAL(picklist_field)
  • B. CASE(picklist_field)
  • C. CASE("picklist_field")
  • D. Picklist_field(VALUE)
228)Standard reports are visible through the Reports search.
  • A. True
  • B. False
229)Which report format summarizes data in a grid against horizontal and vertical criteria and provides totals for both rows and columns?
  • A. Summary
  • B. Matrix
  • C. Tabular
230)What is the default report format for new reports created in report builder?
  • A. Summary
  • B. Tabular
  • C. Matrix
231)User A modifies a record. This modification triggers a workflow rule for immediate
execution that includes a field update on the current record. After the execution is
complete, what user will be listed under the Last Modified field of this record?
  • A. User A
  • B. The designated workflow user
  • C. The default workflow user
  • D. The last user to modify the record prior to User A
232)Which of the following is a standard Profile?
  • A. Sales User
  • B. Marketing User
  • C. Invoice Manager
  • D. Contract Manager
233)What is Force.com Platform? Choose 3 answers:
  • A. Customize, integrate and create enterprise applications as a service and without software.
  • B. Point-and-click customization tool
  • C. Customize standard applications provided by Salesforce.com or build their own on- demand applications
  • D. Modify the applications to meet your needs – (No- Coding)
  • E. Group standard and custom tabs into new custom applications
234)Which of the following features is not available in Professional Edition?
  • A. Big Deal Alert
  • B. Workflow
  • C. Account Sharing Rules
  • D. Multi-Currency
235)You can use Sharing Rules to grant wider access to data. You cannot restrict access below
your OWD levels.
  • A. True
  • B. False
236)A System Administrator can edit a profile to:
  • A. Prevent a user from viewing custom tabs
  • B. Prevent the use of Mass email
  • C. Deny a user access to other users leads
Wouldn't A apply here as well? You can hide custom tabs within a profile.
237)Up to 25 custom lookup fields can be defined per object.
  • A. True
  • B. False
Spring 14 release has increased the limit to 40
238)You must be a user of salesforce.com in order to Receive an email notification in the case escalation process:
  • A. True
  • B. False
239)Which data can be synched using the new Salesforce for Outlook?
  • A. Custom objects
  • B. Events
  • C. Leads
  • D. Contacts
Contacts, Events and Tasks can be synced.
240)Which of the following is part of the Sales Cloud 2?
  • A. Accounts and Contacts
  • B. Cases
  • C. Marketing and Leads
  • D. Solutions
  • E. Content Library
  • F. Opportunities and Quotes
241)When converting a lead, what values are transferred to the opportunity?
  • A. Amount = Lead Amount
  • B. Close Date = Today
  • C. Close Date = Last day in fiscal quarter
  • D. Stage = First stage in list
242)To make a field required, which of the following is used) (Pick the best possible answer)
  • A. Page Layout
  • B. Field Level Security
  • C. Profile
  • D. Both Page Layout and Field Level Security
The correct answer here is (C) Validation Rules.

(A) Page Layouts are only a superficial layer of security.  You can bypass page layouts using any Data Loader, Apex Code, inline list view editing, etc.  Securing things using page layouts is like locking your front door but leaving all your windows open.

(B) Field-Level Security cannot enforce someone to populate a field, this only allows them to either read or edit the field.

(C) Validation Rules are the final line of defense, nothing gets by these (including data loader, apex code, etc) except perhaps the quick create, which might be a bug  =)

(D) Both Page Layout and Field-Level Security doesn't work because (A) is too weak!
243)Which can be accessed by a Chatter Free user?
  • A. People
  • B. Content
  • C. Profiles
  • D. Groups
  • E. Files
  • F. Leads
244)What is the maximum number of values you can have in a picklist?
  • A. 500
  • B. 250
  • C. 600
  • D. 1,000
  • E. 2,000
It is 1000 for single select picklist and 500 for multi-select picklist
245)If you are added to a Sales Team with read/write access you then have the ability to extend sharing on the opportunity to other users.
  • A. True
  • B. False
246)Custom Report Types (CRT) allows you to build a framework from which users can create and customize reports in the report wizard but not in report builder.
  • A. True
  • B. False
247)Identify the true statements about the workflow approval process?
  • A. When a record is submitted for approval the Admin can edit the record
  • B. You can forward an email approval request to another email address
  • C. The approvers delegate can also approve a request
  • D. Approvers can view an approval request from their home page
  • E. Approvers can only access an approval page from the application
All approvers delegate can't approve... Approval steps define the chain of approval for a particular approval process. Each step determines which records can advance to that step, who to assign approval requests to, and whether to let each approver’s delegate respond to the requests. The first step specifies what to do if a record doesn’t advance to that step. Later steps specify what happens if an approver rejects the request.
Approver delegates can approve if it is configured in the approval rule, otherwise no. So the question seems incomplete.
248)Both accounts and users can exist in multiple territories.
  • A. True
  • B. False
249)A Workflow rule can only be triggered when a record is created.
  • A. True
  • B. False
250)All of the following are default Account record types- with Client Management EXCEPT:
  • A. Account Tab Default
  • B. Business Account Default
  • C. Person Account Default
  • D. Partner Account Default
251)A Record Owner has the following privileges:
  • A. View and Edit Capabilities
  • B. Transfer Capabilities
  • C. Deletion Capabilities
  • D. Import Leads Capabilities
  • E. Import Opportunity Capabilities
252)Which of the following fields CAN NOT be a controlling field for Dependent Picklists?
  • A. Standard Picklist
  • B. Custom Picklist
  • C. Custom Multi-Select Picklist
  • D. Standard Checkbox
  • E. Custom Checkbox
253)This helps you manage the complete lifecycle of customer service,from logging cases to suggesting and delivering solutions across multiple channels, including Web self-service and live agent support:
  • A. Ideas
  • B. Community
  • C. Sales Cloud
  • D. Service Cloud2
  • E. Sales Cloud2
  • F. None of the Above
254)Universally required fields always display on edit pages regardless of field-level security.
  • A. True
  • B. False
If field is universally required, then we cannot make that field as read only. Moreover, we cannot remove it from the page layout.
255)Which statements are true about Cloud Scheduler?
  • A. It is available in Group, Professional, Enterprise, Unlimited, and Developer Editions only.
  • B. Cloud Scheduler is now enabled by default for all organizations.
  • C. You can automatically see the New Meeting Request button on all eligible contact, lead, and person account detail pages.
  • D. Meeting organizers can not use Cloud Scheduler to request meetings with customers, and have customers select preferred times before confirming the meeting.
  • E. Administrators can add or remove the New Meeting Request button on multiple page layouts using the new Cloud Scheduler quick setup method.
256)The Report Builder is different from the Report Wizard.
  • A. True
  • B. False
257)A new list view can be created from within the console
  • A. True
  • B. False
258)Which type(s) of file(s) is accessible through Content?
  • A. Audio Files.
  • B. PPT and Video files only.
  • C. Salesforce CRM Content can include all file types.
  • D. Files attached to a Chatter profile post.
  • E. Video Files.
  • F. Microsoft® PowerPoint presentations.
259)Mail Merge is available in which Salesforce Editions?
  • A. All except Professional
  • B. Professional and Enterprise
  • C. Professional, Developer and Enterprise
  • D. Enterprise and Developer only
  • E. Developer, Enterprise and Unlimited only
  • F. All editions
260)Which file types can you use when exporting reports?
  • A. You can not export a report. You can only email it.
  • B. Comma Delimited (.csv)
  • C. Excel (.xls)
  • D. PDF
261)What is parallel approval Routing?
  • A. When you can mass assign your locked records to users in your same Role
  • B. The ability to send approval requests to yourself multiple times, so you can approve a record
  • C. The ability to take back approval requests once you have sent them
  • D. The ability to send approval requests to multiple approvers in a single step
262)What is the maximum of time triggers per Workflow Rule?
  • A. 5
  • B. 10
  • C. 15
  • D. 20
263)You cannot use the browser's print function to print reports.
  • A. True
  • B. False
264)Can a Standard User Profile import members into a campaign?
  • A. Yes.
  • B. No.
  • C. Only if they have "Import Campaign Members" permission checked.
  • D. Only if they have "Modify All Data" permission checked.
265)What can an administrator customize for the Service Cloud console?
  • A. Whether the record opens as a primary tab or subtab
  • B. The fields displayed in the highlights panel
  • C. The interaction log fields displayed for objects without an Activity History related list
  • D. Whether the SoftPhone displays in the footer or sidebar
  • E. The objects displayed in the navigation tab
266)Every profile, including profiles associated with Customer Portal users must have at least one visible app.
  • A. True
  • B. False
267)Which is a capability of the new Service Cloud console?
  • A. It provides data visibility by combining a list view and related records on one screen.
  • B. It allows agents to view key record information in the highlights panel.
  • C. It preserves the context of calls using primary tabs and subtabs.
  • D. It allows access to data by opening each record in a new window.
  • E. It allows agents to take notes in an interaction log while in a call.
268)Which of the following statements are true about Data Validation?
  • A. Validation rules apply to all new and updated records for an object.
  • B. Validation rules can update fields which are not included in a page layout.
  • C. Validation rules can reference fields which are not included in a page layout.
  • D. If an error message is not set, a default message will be prompted instead.
  • E. All of the above.
  • F. None of the Above.
269)How many workflow rules can you create per entity?
  • A. 10
  • B. 15
  • C. 20
  • D. 25

This is wrong. You can create 500 workflow rules per object (both active and inactive) and 50 active workflow rules per objecthttps://resources.docs.salesforce.com/208/latest/en-us/sfdc/pdf/salesforce_app_limits_cheatsheet.pdf

2 comments:

  1. Setting up and managing users is essential for maintaining security and productivity within any system. Proper user management ensures that each team member has the appropriate access levels while protecting sensitive information. For more tips on user management tools, check out NinzaHost!

    ReplyDelete

Lightning Inter-Component Communication Patterns

Lightning Inter-Component Communication Patterns If you’re comfortable with how a Lightning Component works and want to build producti...